The Constitution of Pakistan (1973), Article 185 (3), was the co-owner of a house occupied by the plaintiff and the plaintiff through the purchase of the house, which the dismissed homeowner, against the plaintiff on the basis of title to the trial court. But the appellate court and the High Court's correctness parties, being formally co-owners, were allowed to consider the appeal's leave: whether in the absence of evidence that the plaintiff was exclusively The house was exclusively occupied, and the fact that the defendant had permanent occupation, the appellate court's house was the plaintiff's question. Eating was wrong. And was the High Court's view in this regard not even based on a reasonable assessment of the evidence?
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